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probability enquiry

shelskishelski
edited October 2010 in The Poker Clinic
The other day i was playing hi/lo on a six max table. There was a flop that was identical to the previous flop. No big deal but the cards were actually in the same order so totally identical. I've played a lot of hands but never seen this before so it struck me as to the odds of this happeneing as being pretty wild. I only got cse grade 1 maths ( tard , I know ). I figured it to be 52 * 51 *50 = 132600 * 6 ( no of perms ) = 795,600 / 1 . Am I correct in this assumption ?
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Comments

  • LOL_RAISELOL_RAISE
    edited October 2010
    id imagine it starts off as 48*47*46 as you are holding 4cards yourself that we do know of.

    then you would have to take into account the probability of us not having one of the cards on the first flop in our hand for the very next hand and more complicated stuff.

    using many long formulae i calculate it to be bout tree fiddy to 1
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  • shelskishelski
    edited October 2010
    In Response to Re: probability enquiry:
    id imagine it starts off as 48*47*46 as you are holding 4cards yourself that we do know of. then you would have to take into account the probability of us not having one of the cards on the first flop in our hand for the very next hand and more complicated stuff. using many long formulae i calculate it to be bout tree fiddy to 1
    Posted by LOL_RAISE
    Ahhhh ok but. This is where my feeble intellect balked. For the flop to be identical it is essential that no-one in the hand holds any of the cards or it wont happen anyway so therefore i started at 52.  Can you illuminate me a little further. Apologies and thanx for your co-operation .My goodness what nebulous horror does the voluminous cave of my ignorance contain ? tree fiddy = 350k / 1 right ? My gaelic is as rusty as my maths.
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  • debdobs_67debdobs_67
    edited October 2010
    Another one for the stats geeks out there,what approx odds of having the identical 2 hole cards 2 hands in a row.I have actually had this remarkably frequently,xxx
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  • unknown_usernameunknown_username
    edited October 2010
    In Response to Re: probability enquiry:
    id imagine it starts off as 48*47*46 as you are holding 4cards yourself that we do know of. then you would have to take into account the probability of us not having one of the cards on the first flop in our hand for the very next hand and more complicated stuff. using many long formulae i calculate it to be bout tree fiddy to 1
    Posted by LOL_RAISE
    this is the correct answer!

    didnt think that term would be used on this site lol
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  • shelskishelski
    edited October 2010
    In Response to Re: probability enquiry:
    In Response to Re: probability enquiry : this is the correct answer! didnt think that term would be used on this site lol
    Posted by Scottomus0
    It was 6 max so why subtract my hole cards only. Ok 52-24 = 28 so 28 * 27 * 26 * = 19656 * 6 =  117936 / 1  not tree fiddy. It's not that i dont believe you i just dont understand the formula. Is it so esoteric that it defies explaination ?   
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  • shelskishelski
    edited October 2010
    In Response to Re: probability enquiry:
    Another one for the stats geeks out there,what approx odds of having the identical 2 hole cards 2 hands in a row.I have actually had this remarkably frequently,xxx
    Posted by debdobs_67
    52 *51 = 2652 /1. The answer therefore is bout  tree fiddy. :)
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