TAX RULES WHEN YOU'VE BEEN STAKED

WWFCBlue

With regards to staking at 1:1, this is basically turning say a £1000 buy in into a £200buy in (obviously not many people sell 80%, but this is an example), as the player only pays 20% entry fee to win 20% of any cash. Would it not be better for the player to simply play a £200 tourney, where the field may be "softer" due to the lower buy in? Probably more likely for people asking for staking to £100/200 tourneys... the field would surely be softer if they played a £50 buy in, rather than playing a £200buy in, but with the same prize structre as a £50 buy in for the player.

(Apologies if that makes no sense....)

MattBates

WWFCBlue...I understand where you are coming from, what you need to factor in is a couple of things....

1. Players egos - A lot of players want to play the highest games possible
2. The £1k buy in may have a higher effective top prize. I say effective as it will nearly always have a higher prize pool but the key is effective prizepool, eg how much the 20% could win you vs the 100% of the lower buy in tournament

Hope that makes sense

Mohican

In Response to Re: TAX RULES WHEN YOU'VE BEEN STAKED:

WWFCBlue...I understand where you are coming from, what you need to factor in is a couple of things.... 1. Players egos - A lot of players want to play the highest games possible 2. The £1k buy in may have a higher effective top prize. I say effective as it will nearly always have a higher prize pool but the key is effective prizepool, eg how much the 20% could win you vs the 100% of the lower buy in tournament Hope that makes sense
Posted by MattBates

It also comes under BRM as you can be rolled for higher buy-ins than you would be normally. Even if you are rolled, as tourney play has high variance, it can help flatten out the troughs when you don't cash.