You need to be logged in to your Sky Poker account above to post discussions and comments.

You might need to refresh your page afterwards.

Sky Poker forums will be temporarily unavailable from 11pm Wednesday July 25th.
Sky Poker Forums is upgrading its look! Stay tuned for the big reveal!

I GIVE UP

2»

Comments

  • edited November 2011
    In Response to Re: I GIVE UP:
    In Response to Re: I GIVE UP : no its not,
    Posted by cleaverjim
    It's 16 to 1 (or 1 in 17) for any pocket pair, but 220 to 1 for a specific PP.

    Eg if you say "I bet i'll have pocket 7s next hand" you'll be correct 1 in every 221 times.

    If you say "I bet i'll have a pocket pair next hand" you'll be correct 1 in 17 times.
  • edited November 2011
    Same thing happened but in my favour last night . . . .

    Limped in with A,10o, and J,Q,K hit the board. Re-raised all-in in response to a hefty raise and was called. The oppo had pocket kings. Ouch! - I felt for him.

    A timely reminder why I limit my play to low level SnGs and have given the cash tables a wide berth. It's the sort of odd incidence that can cost you a bundle - who wouldn't have shoved with everything in front of them flopping a set of kings? At the risk of mis-typing a figure again, what about this?


    Odds of flopping a 10-A straight                     odds of flopping a set from a pocket pair

        1/305(ish)                                   x                            2/50 x 3/1 (again ish).


    So the odds of an end of range straight being up against a set (from a pocket pair) after the flop

    1/305 x 2/50 x 3/1 =  6/15,250 = 1/2,542;  2,541-1



    After the event, his dilemma in calculating the chances of me holding 10,A?

    16 (possible combos for A,10)      *         (51-5 * 52-5) five cards are known.
     1                                                                 2          to account for A,10 v 10,A

    = 1/68 (ish); 67-1


    As pointed out above, the consideration should change based on the cards now on the board, although bearing in mind the odds the judgement call probably won't. If all three cards on the board were suited, the odds of a set being dominated at this stage change considerably of course.


    Looking on the bright side he dropped 30p. It could have been so much more. I can't remember who s/he was, but I wish her/him better cards in the future.


  • edited November 2011

    You love a sum or 2 Goethe don't ya!!!

    His challenge with a set of kings on that board (or any poker situation) is to figure out how well he fares against the range of hands you might be holding, rather than each individual hand you might be holding.....

    So on J, Q, K,in a limped pot with you showing strong interest it's clear that all the following hands are in your range...

    KQ, KJ, JQ, AK, KT, QT, TT, JJ, QQ, AT, 9T......

    If you calculate the equity that that range of hands holds against his top set, it's clear that he is well ahead of almost all those hands, and still has a solid draw to the nut full house the times he is behind.

    I know u weren't being critical of his play (ofc you wouldn't be, he's been v unlucky as u say) but just thought I'd clear up how you should be interpreting situations like the one above. 
  • edited November 2011
    In Response to Re: I GIVE UP:
    In Response to Re: I GIVE UP : It's 16 to 1 (or 1 in 17) for any pocket pair, but 220 to 1 for a specific PP. Eg if you say "I bet i'll have pocket 7s next hand" you'll be correct 1 in every 221 times. If you say "I bet i'll have a pocket pair next hand" you'll be correct 1 in 17 times.
    Posted by Poker_Fail

    ^^ This is correct. 5.9% chance of *any* PP, 0.45% of a specific pocket pair.

  • edited November 2011
    Morale of the story ?

    Don't min raise, unless you can take a bad beat

    Take the risk, enjoy the reward or not )
  • edited November 2011
    In Response to Re: I GIVE UP:
    You love a sum or 2 Goethe don't ya!!! His challenge with a set of kings on that board (or any poker situation) is to figure out how well he fares against the range of hands you might be holding, rather than each individual hand you might be holding..... So on J, Q, K,in a limped pot with you showing strong interest it's clear that all the following hands are in your range... KQ, KJ, JQ, AK, KT, QT, TT, JJ, QQ, AT, 9T...... If you calculate the equity that that range of hands holds against his top set, it's clear that he is well ahead of almost all those hands, and still has a solid draw to the nut full house the times he is behind. I know u weren't being critical of his play (ofc you wouldn't be, he's been v unlucky as u say) but just thought I'd clear up how you should be interpreting situations like the one above. 
    Posted by DOHHHHHHH
    Yeah . . . I do like a sum or two as they keep me in a job. Bit cheesed off I goofed above.

    Of course you are quite right . . . its not just about the obvious draw on the board but the probabilitiy of ending up on the business end of other combinations s/he might lose to. From my point of view I did consider the number of cards that would mean my ace high straight was overtaken - 1xK, 3xQ, 3xJ; anyone of which would have had the last laugh (7/47 x 2/1 = 14/47 or a tad more than 3-1).

    Where someone wrote above something to the effect that the odds change, what I think they meant was that the factors to consider change, and these factors' probabilities will have different odds from those of the the initial instance? - which is a fair point to make. A matter of terminology perhaps? Sometimes when people refer to the the "odds changing", it's linked to nonsense like the great Gamblers Fallacy.

    So how do you work out the "equity" of a range of hands?

  • edited November 2011
    In Response to Re: I GIVE UP:
    In Response to Re: I GIVE UP : Yeah . . . I do like a sum or two as they keep me in a job. Bit cheesed off I goofed above. Of course you are quite right . . . its not just about the obvious draw on the board but the probabilitiy of ending up on the business end of other combinations s/he might lose to. From my point of view I did consider the number of cards that would mean my ace high straight was overtaken - 1xK, 3xQ, 3xJ; anyone of which would have had the last laugh (7/47 x 2/1 = 14/47 or a tad more than 3-1). Where someone wrote above something to the effect that the odds change, what I think they meant was that the factors to consider change, and these factors' probabilities will have different odds from those of the the initial instance? - which is a fair point to make. A matter of terminology perhaps? Sometimes when people refer to the the "odds changing", it's linked to nonsense like the great Gamblers Fallacy. So how do you work out the "equity" of a range of hands?
    Posted by Goethe
    Dohhh mentioned it above and he is correct in that you are doing the wrong maths. In the hand you mentioned with 2,3,4 board , you hold JJ and villain moves in you need to think about his likely range. This depends on player tendencies.
    Hands that beat you: 65, A5, possible, some villains you can expect to fold pre. Sets are in nearly all villains ranges , 2p is sometimes a possibility although many villains fold them pre. An odd time you see slowplayed QQ+ but not often 

    Of hands you are ahead of Ax with flushdraw will have slightly more than 50% equity v you, any pair with an A kicker, 55 also have good equity, you need to decide is villain likely to play them this way. You crush smaller overpairs, lots of villains go broke here with them some dont though. He may raise air sometimes

    You need to calculate your equity v best guess at villains range. Pokerstove is a good tool for this, download it for free. Play around with it and you will get good at estimating your equity in certain spots
  • edited November 2011
    Yeah . . . but how do I calculate it (the "equity" that is)?
  • edited November 2011
    well there are 2 options:

    1. if you are a sadist,work out your equity v each hand in his range and average it out using number of combos of each hand. This would be pretty difficult even if you approximate equities using rules of 2 and 4 etc

    2. plug the ranges into pokerstove
  • edited November 2011
    In Response to Re: I GIVE UP:
    well there are 2 options: 1. if you are a sadist,work out your equity v each hand in his range and average it out using number of combos of each hand. This would be pretty difficult even if you approximate equities using rules of 2 and 4 etc 2. plug the ranges into pokerstove
    Posted by grantorino
    OK . . . . what's the methodology for (1)?

    Two other questions fall out (sorry if I sound thick) - firstly what is "equity" (what does it measure)? Secondly, how is it quantified, therefore enabling diffferent instances to be compared (in order to do this you would need to calculate it, hence my question above).

    Why not take me through a simple example?

    Apologies to all of the true Area51ers, as I've taken this thread off topic I think - perhaps we should start a new one somewhere else?
  • edited November 2011

    I've no idea how to work it out with pen and paper, but constructing a range and asking a calculator to do it for you is pretty easy....

    A simplexample would probably be......

    We're on the bubble of a dym, each player has 3,000 chips.

    The blinds are @ 100/200, and we are under the gun with pocket Jacks.

    We min raise to 400, as we've got a strong hand, and don't want to fold, but we have too many chips to shove.

    The button is a really tight, solid player, and he shoves all in. Both blinds fold.

    The decision is back on us. In order to decide wether we should call or fold, we have to assign our opponent a range of hands that he could realistically have in this situation.

    Obviously this is going to be an easy range to construct due to the circumstances.

    You'd be looking at ...

    AA, obviously...
    KK....
    QQ....

    and definitely AK suited.....?

    That would be my default range of hands that a really solid DYM player would shove over an UTG raise on the bubble of a dym.....

    You use your notes/history on the opponent to add/remove hands from that range.

    Some villains are abit looser/aggressive, in which case we can add pocket Jacks, tens/pocket 9s, pocket 8s, AKo and AQs?

    ------

    At the lower levels, wencounter some maniacs. Who shove with allsorts!!!

    So to construct his range we could go with maybe ....

    AA/KK/QQ/JJ/TT/99/88/77/66/55/44/33/22

    AK/AQ/AJ/AT/A9 all suited.

    AK/AQ/AJ/AT off suit.

    KQ/KJ/KT/JQ suited.

    KQ off suit!


    ------------------------------------------------------------



    So we then enter these ranges into pokerstove which will calculate out equity (chance of winning the hand) against each of the ranges.

    Scenatio 1 - Against vvvvv tight player

    equity win tie      pots won pots tied
    Hand 0: 24.921%   24.71% 00.21%      55845180   481362.00   { JJ }
    Hand 1: 75.079%   74.87% 00.21%     169216224   481362.00   { QQ+, AKs }

    You can see that against a very narrow range, our pocket jacks only hold 24.7% equity, so in this case, assuming our reads are right, it's a very clear fold.

    ----------------------------------------------------------------


    Scenario 2 - Against a looser, more aggressive player....

    equity win tie      pots won pots tied
    Hand 0: 52.033%   50.99% 01.05%     298586040  6122802.00   { JJ }
    Hand 1: 47.967%   46.92% 01.05%     274776324  6122802.00   { 88+, AQs+, AKo 

    U can see that against a range of 88+ AQs+ and AKo, we're a very marginal favourite at 51%....

    Although our hand fares much better against this range, in a dym bubble situation with even stacks, we don't really want to be flipping. So again, although it's alot closer, it's still a good idea to fold here.

    -----------------------------------------------------------------


    Scenario 3 - Against a loose aggressive/borderline maniac.

    equity win tie      pots won pots tied
    Hand 0: 63.412%   62.86% 00.55%    1039777932  9118944.00   { JJ }
    Hand 1: 36.588%   36.04% 00.55%     596069844  9118944.00   { 22+, A8s+, KTs+, QJs, ATo+, KQo }

    So against the aggressive plonker that you no doubt bump into alot at the lower stakes, you can see that your hand has 63% equity against his range of hands, so it's a clear call. 

    Just a note on that, even when you have a maniac shoving on you, you have to still include AA and KK in his range, even nutters get dealt premium hands occasionally.

    If you have a read that he will flat call with AA/KK, rather than shove, you can remove these hands from his range, and your equity will beven better, therefore making it an even easier call.

    -----------------------------

    Building ranges and learning to play against them rather than trying to put your opponent on a specific hand (or 2) will make your life so much easier, 
    especially as a sit and go player, as alot of your bread and but ter is shoving/folding pre flop.





  • edited November 2011
    In Response to Re: I GIVE UP:
    In Response to Re: I GIVE UP : OK . . . . what's the methodology for (1)? Two other questions fall out (sorry if I sound thick) - firstly what is "equity" (what does it measure)? Secondly, how is it quantified, therefore enabling diffferent instances to be compared (in order to do this you would need to calculate it, hence my question above). Why not take me through a simple example? Apologies to all of the true Area51ers, as I've taken this thread off topic I think - perhaps we should start a new one somewhere else?
    Posted by Goethe
    Equity is your share of the pot. If pot is 1000 chips, your equity in the pot 67% on average you win 670 chips if showdown is reached

    Im not really capable of doing a full equity calc tbh. It would involve finding the odds of all boards for all different hands in villains range beating the hand you have. If he beats you 1/4 of the time you have 75% equity etc. You might find a full calc somewhere if you google it. Use pokerstove to calculate for you, learn off the basic important one, eg pair v i over pre, two pairv fd on flop etc, even doing this you have to weight the possible combos

    sorry cant be more help but just play around with pokerstove is my advice
  • edited November 2011
    Well gents . . . thank you for your efforts above.

    It would seem to me that we've all been talking about the same thing . . . . although perhaps in different terms.

    The description of having an "equity" share of any pot, is a difficult one to visualise, as it is basically a longer term measure of success; with x hand equating to 75% "equity", then over the longer term you could expect to win 75% of chips in pots when these hands show over the longer term. Trouble is, the longer term is a long time coming, and with the flux of variance the averages may never actually average out.

    If taking as an expression of probability of winning - from the example above if the odds dictate you'll lose one out of every four hands (on average) then you have 75% equity - then it is easier to comprehend. So the equity could be the possibililty of winning the hand, based on the likely hands an oppo might have and is willing to play. In my discussions above, I've been considering the possibilities of the oppo having hands and drawing certain cards that could turn it into a winner - expressed as odds rather than %ages. Convert my possibilities into %ges, and take them off of 100%, to arrive at the "equity" you've both discussed.

    The difference is, I endeavour to do my calculation on the fly, with the thing between my ears (part of the challenge of the game) although the 15 seconds, less network lags, SkyPoker allow isn't sufficient time to consider every single possibility and factor in the impact of it - so it's mainly the most probable of the possibilities that might occur, with a fair amount of rounding involved. As I've said above though, some of the finer points won't really have any impact on a playing decision.

    I'll give your comments some thought may write again in due course.

    Good cards.






  • edited November 2011
    In Response to Re: I GIVE UP:
    I'v e no id ea how to work it out with pen and paper, but constructing a range and asking a calculator to do it for you is pr etty  easy....
    A very useful post. Thank you.

    Whilst the logic is clearly explained, the examples you give do seem to be taking the scenic route to arriving at a call or fold decision. To some degree assigning specific hand ranges is somewhat academic as well (although I can see it will assist when considering the playing behaviour of different oppos) If you shove with a pair of aces, and the oppo calls with a pair, the actual value is irrelevent as it's an overpair v an underpair and the odds are exactly the same to suckout, regardless of whether the underpair is KK or 88. Likewise if, the call is two different undercards, regardless of what they are the odds will remain the same in drawing to two pair or better - suited cards will throw it as there's a higher chance of hitting a flush, and suited connectors open up further possibilites. If there is a chance that someone might have a better starting hand, what are the odds of that? More likely the lower your cards are. In the overpair v underpair pre-flop contest, there's still a 60%-ish chance that neither player will draw and the higher pair will take it.

    Working out the odds on the most common draws to lose is fairly easy and can be done on the fly, in contrast to having an open window on the desktop and asking a software programme what you should do - I'm sure some players do this. I personally haven't gone down this route, although my reasons for playing regularly are probably different to your own and other members. I play once a week in a live two table tourney, and I think it'd be seen as a tad anti-social to slap a laptop on the table just as the chips were being divvied up. Also, common situations occur time and time again and you don't have to work them out each time as they become ingrained in your memory - I know that someone chasing a set from a pair after the flop has around an 11-1 chance of hitting it, and therefore play accordingly based on all of the other considerations in the game.

    Playing against software and 'bots online is probably the reason that most seasoned players I speak to tell me it's become a lot harder to make money at the game than it was, say, five years ago? Can't comment myself as I've never set out to make money and have only been playing (again) since January.

    Thanks for your efforts in writing your post.





  • edited November 2011
    Starting to look more like the poker clinic everyday.
  • edited November 2011

    and there was me thinking its a fix

  • edited November 2011
    In Response to Re: I GIVE UP:
    Starting to look more like the poker clinic everyday.
    Posted by achill
    Yeah you're right . . . . I'll qualify my earlier posts by saying it only works where the RNG isn't FIXED . . .  !
  • edited November 2011
    In Response to Re: I GIVE UP:
    In Response to Re: I GIVE UP : OK . . . . what's the methodology for (1)? Two other questions fall out (sorry if I sound thick) - firstly what is "equity" (what does it measure)? Secondly, how is it quantified, therefore enabling diffferent instances to be compared (in order to do this you would need to calculate it, hence my question above). Why not take me through a simple example? Apologies to all of the true Area51ers, as I've taken this thread off topic I think - perhaps we should start a new one somewhere else?
    Posted by Goethe
    Plus , what is a big blind?
  • edited November 2011
    In Response to Re: I GIVE UP:
    In Response to Re: I GIVE UP : Plus , what is a big blind?
    Posted by NODEAL
    Winning hand ain't it?
Sign In or Register to comment.