In Response to Re: Double Poker Points -Another promotion aimed at cash players only....... : For goodness sake! This Super Prize Draw started at midnight last night but they're only telling us about it now... I was on that promo page earlier this afternoon and there was no information about it. Why would you start a promotion BEFORE announcing it? Posted by BorinLoner
In Response to Re: Double Poker Points -Another promotion aimed at cash players only....... : For goodness sake! This Super Prize Draw started at midnight last night but they're only telling us about it now... I was on that promo page earlier this afternoon and there was no information about it. Why would you start a promotion BEFORE announcing it? Posted by BorinLoner
i have no idea and no one can ever see the logic behind it, apart from sky, who seem to do it almost everytime
Player B sits down at a cash table with £110. He is not charged a fee to sit down but the rake is 7.5% . He plays a hand, blind on blind, which he puts £5 into. He wins the £10 pot which is charged 75p rake. He's now sat with £114.25. Immediately afterwards he plays another hand, blind on blind, which he puts £5 into. He loses this £10 pot which is charged 75p rake. He's now sat with £109.25. Again by some quirk of fate this scenario is repeated, with each player breaking even from the others, until Player B stands from the table with £100. He has lost no money to his opponents and won none from them but has lost £10 to the rake. He has been given 60 reward points and has paid 9% of his buy-in as rake (Note: not 7.5% ). Posted by BorinLoner
you can't work it out like that because only what he puts into the pot is in play. So taking your scenario on but modifying slightly for ease of calculations i.e. player sits down with £115 and gambles £5 per hand and wins 1 loses one until his balance falls to £100.
To do this he has to play 40 hands - (£15 / 0.75) X 2. Therefore the amount he has put into play is 40 X 5 = £200. the rake he has paid on this gamble is £15. This gives a rake percentage of 7.5%. if sng/mtt player decides to play 40 £5 sng's he has to pay £20 in rake.
You cant count rake of the percentage of the amount a player sits down with because not until the player raises or calls any amount is it at any risk. When a player sits down for a sng or mtt his entire buy in is in play until he loses all his chips, wins them all or the tournament finishes. The mtt/sng player cannot stand at any stage to cut losses or walk away with winnings.
Also according to your theory the amount the player sits at the table with is the key determinant to the rake percentage he pays. Obviously this cannot be correct.
Comments
new thread on this topic please sky
To do this he has to play 40 hands - (£15 / 0.75) X 2. Therefore the amount he has put into play is 40 X 5 = £200. the rake he has paid on this gamble is £15. This gives a rake percentage of 7.5%. if sng/mtt player decides to play 40 £5 sng's he has to pay £20 in rake.
You cant count rake of the percentage of the amount a player sits down with because not until the player raises or calls any amount is it at any risk. When a player sits down for a sng or mtt his entire buy in is in play until he loses all his chips, wins them all or the tournament finishes. The mtt/sng player cannot stand at any stage to cut losses or walk away with winnings.
Also according to your theory the amount the player sits at the table with is the key determinant to the rake percentage he pays. Obviously this cannot be correct.